UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 GS Paper 1 Answer Key with Explanation

1.

Question: “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
Options:
(a) the Champaran Satyagraha
(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement
Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
Explanation: Gandhiji made this statement during the Salt Satyagraha (Dandi March) in 1930, emphasizing his commitment to civil disobedience against unjust colonial laws.

2.

Question: The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
Options:
(a) carnelian
(b) clay
(c) bronze
(d) gold
Answer: (c) bronze
Explanation: The ‘Dancing Girl’ is a bronze statuette from the Indus Valley Civilization, demonstrating advanced metallurgical skills of that era.

3.

Question: Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
Options:
(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah
Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya
Explanation:

After the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 — where a violent mob set fire to a police station, killing 22 policemen — over 200 people were arrested and many were sentenced to death.

Madan Mohan Malaviya, a prominent lawyer and freedom fighter, provided legal defence to the accused.
Through his efforts in the Allahabad High Court, the number of death sentences was significantly reduced.

4.

Question: Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?
Options:
(a) The Poona Pact
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: (a) The Poona Pact
Explanation: After the Poona Pact of 1932, Gandhiji intensified his efforts for the upliftment of the depressed classes, whom he called ‘Harijans’.

5.

Question: Consider the following fruits:
I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
Options:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
Explanation: Papaya, pineapple, and guava were all introduced in India by the Portuguese during the 16th and 17th centuries.

6.

Question: Consider the following countries:
I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
Options:
(a) All the five
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) Only two
Answer: (d) Only two
Explanation: Only Australia and Brazil have more than four time zones among the countries listed.

7.

Question: Consider the following statements:
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:

Anadyr (in Russia’s Far East, Siberia) and Nome (in Alaska, USA) are geographically close — just across the Bering Strait.
However, Anadyr lies west of the International Date Line, and Nome lies east of it.
This means there is a date difference of almost 24 hours between them, despite being close in distance.
So, when it’s morning in both cities, they are indeed on different calendar days.

8.

Question: Who among the following was the founder of the Self-Respect Movement?
Options:
(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar
Answer: (a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
Explanation: Periyar founded the Self-Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu to promote social equality and rationalism.

9.

Question: Consider the following pairs:
Country — Resource-rich in
I. Botswana — Diamond
II. Chile — Lithium
III. Indonesia — Nickel
How many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Options:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
Explanation: Botswana is known for diamonds, Chile for lithium, and Indonesia for nickel.

10.

Question: Consider the following pairs:
Region — Country
I. Mallorca — Italy
II. Normandy — Spain
III. Sardinia — France
How many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Options:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Explanation: Mallorca is in Spain, Normandy is in France, and Sardinia is in Italy; none of the pairs are correctly matched.

11.

Question: Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Options:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation:

Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts
= ₹80,000 – ₹60,000 = ₹20,000 crores ✅
Fiscal Deficit = Total borrowing requirement of the government
= ₹10,000 crores (given) ✅
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments
= ₹10,000 – ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 crores ✅

12.

Question: India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
Options:
(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
(b) India to Central Asia via China
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan
Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
Explanation: INSTC is a 7,200 km long network connecting India, Iran, Russia, Central Asia, and Europe, intended to promote freight transport.

13.

Question: Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Options:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation: The USA produces more ethanol than Brazil, but Brazil uses sugarcane as its principal feedstock, while the USA uses corn.

14.

Question: The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones, and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation: Wet-bulb temperature above 35°C means humans cannot cool themselves by sweating, leading to fatal heat stress. Statement II is correct; Statement I is not directly related to wet-bulb temperature.

15.

Question: A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
Options:
(a) ₹48,500 crores
(b) ₹51,500 crores
(c) ₹58,500 crores
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) ₹48,500 crores
Explanation: Gross primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments = ₹50,000 – ₹1,500 = ₹48,500 crores.

16.

Question: Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended ₹4,800 Crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Options:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer: (c) I, III and IV
Explanation: The 15th Finance Commission recommended ₹4,800 crores for education, ₹45,000 crores for agricultural reforms, and reintroduced tax effort criteria. The share of Union taxes is 41%, not 45%.

17.

Question: Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help reduce developing countries’ poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after World War II.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
Explanation: IBRD provides loans to middle-income countries and was established to help Europe after WWII. It does not work single-handedly; it is part of the World Bank Group.

18.

Question: Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
I. In case of RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) III only
(c) I and III
(d) I and II only
Answer: (c) I and III
Explanation: RTGS is real-time and instantaneous; NEFT is settled in batches. RTGS has restricted hours on some days, but NEFT is available 24×7. Customers are not charged for inward RTGS transactions.

19.

Question: Consider the following countries:
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above, other than India, are there where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
Options:
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five
Answer: (b) Only three
Explanation: As of early 2024, UPI is accepted for merchant payments in UAE, Singapore, and France.

20.

Question: Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create three lakh skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options:
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation: All three statements are correct as per the scheme details.

21.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Options:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Explanation: Rare earth elements like europium and terbium have phosphorescent properties, which is why they are used in display screens.

22.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.
II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
Explanation: The National Rail Plan aims for a future-ready railway by 2028. Kavach is an indigenous Indian technology (not developed with Germany) and uses RFID tags.

23.

Question:
Consider the following space missions:
I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?
Options:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
Explanation: All three missions—Axiom-4 (private ISS mission), SpaDeX (ISRO’s microgravity experiment), and Gaganyaan (India’s human spaceflight mission)—support microgravity research.

24.

Question:
With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:

Dornier-228 — Maritime patrol aircraft
IL-76 — Supersonic combat aircraft
C-17 Globemaster III — Military transport aircraft
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Options:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation:

Dornier-228: Maritime patrol aircraft (Correct)
IL-76: Military transport aircraft (Incorrectly matched, it’s not a supersonic combat aircraft)
C-17 Globemaster III: Military transport aircraft (Correct description, but not matched in the options)
Only Dornier-228 is correctly matched as per the given options.

25.

Question:
Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
Options:
(a) Silver iodide and potassium nitrate
(b) Silver nitrate and potassium chloride
(c) Silver iodide and potassium iodide
(d) Silver nitrate and potassium iodide
Answer: (c) Silver iodide and potassium iodide
Explanation: Cloud seeding for artificial rainfall commonly uses silver iodide and sometimes potassium iodide as seeding agents.

26.

Question:
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation: The President’s power of pardon can be subjected to limited judicial review. However, the President exercises this power only on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

27.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
III. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (a) I and II only
Explanation: The Speaker continues in office after dissolution until the new House meets. The Speaker can be removed by a resolution with 14 days’ notice. There is no constitutional provision requiring resignation from the political party.

28.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation: The President decides on disqualification under the 10th Schedule but acts on the advice of the Election Commission, not the Council of Ministers. The term ‘political party’ is mentioned in the Tenth Schedule.

29.

Question:
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Options:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation: State Governments have the power to make rules for minor minerals. The Central Government can notify what constitutes a minor mineral.

30.

Question:
Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
Options:
(a) The European Union
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization
Answer: (a) The European Union
Explanation: The European Union has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to restore ecosystems and combat climate change and biodiversity loss.

31.

Question:
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation:

An Ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament and can amend any Central Act.
It can abridge a Fundamental Right, subject to judicial review.
An Ordinance can be given retrospective effect.

32.

Question:
Consider the following pairs:
State — Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh — The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland — The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment
III. Tripura — Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Options:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
Explanation:

Arunachal Pradesh: Itanagar is named after Ita Fort; the state has Namdapha and Mouling National Parks.
Nagaland: Formed by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962 (Constitutional Amendment).
Tripura: Was a Part ‘C’ State, then a Union Territory, and became a state in 1972.

33.

Question:
With reference to India, consider the following:
I. Zonal Councils
II. The Inter-State Council
III. The National Security Council
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Options:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation:
Only the Inter-State Council is established by the Constitution (Article 263). Zonal Councils and the National Security Council are statutory/executive bodies, not constitutional.

34.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Constitution mentions the Governor’s discretionary powers. The President can reserve a bill only when it is forwarded by the Governor.

35.

Question:
Consider the following pairs:
Provision in the Constitution of India — Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State — The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture — The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories — The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Options:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: (c) All the three
Explanation:

I: Article 50 (DPSP)
II: Fundamental Duty (Article 51A)
III: Article 24 (Fundamental Right)

36.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
The State Government does not lose executive power in Scheduled Areas. However, the Union Government can assume control if recommended by the Governor.

37.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution are subject to judicial review.
II. The Supreme Court has held that the total reservation under Article 16(4) should not exceed 50%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The Supreme Court has held both that reservation policies are subject to judicial review and that reservations should not exceed 50% (Indra Sawhney case).

38.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Parliament of India can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India.
II. The Parliament can make laws for a State with respect to any matter in the State List only if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:

Parliament can legislate for the whole or any part of India.
For State List matters, Parliament can legislate if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority (Article 249).

39.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The President of India can promulgate an Ordinance only when either of the Houses of Parliament is not in session.
II. An Ordinance promulgated by the President has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Both statements are correct as per Article 123 of the Constitution.

40.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor.
II. The Chief Minister holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor but does not hold office at the pleasure of the Governor; he/she holds office as long as he/she enjoys the confidence of the legislative assembly.

41.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Election Commission of India is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India.
II. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India.
III. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in the manner and on the grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation:

The Election Commission is a permanent and independent constitutional body.
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President.
Removal of the Chief Election Commissioner is on the same grounds and manner as a Supreme Court judge.

42.

Question:
With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
I. The Supreme Court of India has original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction.
II. The High Courts in India have only appellate jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Supreme Court has original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction. High Courts have both original and appellate jurisdiction.

43.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The term ‘Secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
II. The Preamble of the Constitution of India is not justiciable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:

The 42nd Amendment added ‘Secular’ to the Preamble.
The Preamble is not enforceable by courts (not justiciable).

44.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justiciable in nature.
II. The Fundamental Duties are enforceable by law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
Directive Principles are non-justiciable. Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by law, though Parliament may make laws for their implementation.

45.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
I. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rules Committee.
II. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of the Committee of Privileges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rules Committee. The Committee of Privileges is usually chaired by a senior member appointed by the Speaker, not the Deputy Speaker.

46.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Parliament of India can increase the area of any State without the consent of the State Legislature.
II. The Parliament of India can alter the name of any State without the consent of the State Legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Parliament can increase the area or alter the name of any State by law, even without the State Legislature’s consent (though the President must refer the bill to the State Legislature for its views).

47.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India recognizes only religious and linguistic minorities.
II. The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘minority’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
The Constitution does not define ‘minority’. It recognizes religious and linguistic minorities for certain rights, but does not restrict the term to only these groups.

48.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The President of India can declare a National Emergency only on the written recommendation of the Cabinet.
II. The President of India can declare a National Emergency for a part of the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:

The 44th Amendment requires a written Cabinet recommendation for National Emergency.
Emergency can be declared for the whole or part of India.

49.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. The Fundamental Rights can be amended by a simple majority of the Parliament.
II. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a National Emergency except Article 20 and Article 21.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights can only be amended by a special majority. During National Emergency, all Fundamental Rights except Articles 20 and 21 can be suspended.

50.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
II. The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha at his/her own discretion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The President dissolves the Lok Sabha only on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, not at his/her own discretion.

51.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State can reserve certain types of bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President of India.
II. The President of India can direct the Governor to return a bill for reconsideration of the State Legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Governor can reserve certain bills for the President’s consideration. However, the President cannot direct the Governor to return a bill for reconsideration; only the Governor can do so.

52.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Supreme Court of India can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
II. The High Courts of India can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as for other purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
The Supreme Court can issue writs only for Fundamental Rights (Article 32), while High Courts can issue writs for Fundamental Rights and for other legal rights (Article 226).

53.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. The Fundamental Duties are applicable only to citizens of India.
II. The Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
Fundamental Duties are applicable only to citizens. However, some Fundamental Rights (like Article 14, 20, 21, 22) are available to all persons, not just citizens.

54.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Deputy Prime Minister.
II. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha from among themselves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
There is no constitutional provision for the post of Deputy Prime Minister. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by its members.

55.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India.
II. The President of India is the head of the State and not of the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces and is the ceremonial head of the State, not the Government.

56.

Question:
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India?
I. It is a constitutional body.
II. It is an independent statutory body.
III. It can only recommend, not enforce, the award of compensation to the victims.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (b) II and III only
Explanation:
NHRC is a statutory body (not constitutional) and can only recommend compensation; it cannot enforce its recommendations.

57.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Attorney General of India must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
II. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The Attorney General must have the same qualifications as a Supreme Court judge and is appointed by the President.

58.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission every five years or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary.
II. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are binding on the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Constitution provides for a Finance Commission every five years or earlier. Its recommendations are advisory, not binding.

59.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Parliament of India can make laws on any matter in the State List for the whole or any part of India while a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation.
II. The President of India can issue directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised during the operation of a National Emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
During a National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on State List matters and the President can direct States regarding executive power.

60.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
II. The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, and the Prime Minister is its head.

61.

Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council:
I. The GST Council is a constitutional body.
II. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
III. The decisions of the GST Council are taken by a three-fourths majority of the votes cast.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (a) I and II only
Explanation:
The GST Council is a constitutional body chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Decisions are taken by a three-fourths majority of the weighted votes, not just votes cast.

62.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. The President can promulgate ordinances only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session.
II. Ordinances have the same force and effect as laws passed by Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The President can promulgate ordinances only when both Houses are not in session, and ordinances have the same force as laws passed by Parliament.

63.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Directive Principles of State Policy are enforceable by the courts.
II. The Fundamental Rights are non-justiciable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II
Answer: (c) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Directive Principles are non-justiciable, and Fundamental Rights are justiciable (enforceable by courts).

64.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and is not subject to dissolution.
II. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of six years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House with members serving six-year terms, with one-third retiring every two years.

65.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
I. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha.
II. The Speaker can be removed from office by a resolution passed by a simple majority of the members of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Speaker is elected by Lok Sabha members. Removal requires an effective majority, not just a simple majority.

66.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India provides for a bicameral legislature in all States.
II. The Governor of a State can dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
Not all States have bicameral legislatures. The Governor can dissolve the Legislative Assembly on the advice of the Chief Minister.

67.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Indian Constitution provides for a uniform civil code.
II. The Directive Principles of State Policy mention the uniform civil code.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
The Directive Principles (Article 44) mention the uniform civil code, but it is not provided as a fundamental right or law.

68.

Question:
With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
I. The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of appeal.
II. The High Courts are the highest courts in the States.
III. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in disputes between States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) All I, II and III
Answer: (d) All I, II and III
Explanation:
All statements are correct. The Supreme Court is the highest appellate court and has original jurisdiction in inter-State disputes. High Courts are highest courts in States.

69.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Parliament of India can amend the Constitution.
II. The Supreme Court of India can review the amendments made to the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Parliament can amend the Constitution, but the Supreme Court can review amendments under the Basic Structure doctrine.

70.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. The President of India can grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment.
II. The President’s pardoning power extends to cases involving the death penalty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The President has the power to grant pardons and other clemency, including in death penalty cases.

UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 GS Paper 1 Answer Key with Explanation

71.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Election Commission of India conducts elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India.
II. The Election Commission of India is responsible for the preparation of the electoral rolls for Parliamentary and State Assembly elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The Election Commission conducts elections for President, Vice-President, and prepares electoral rolls for Parliamentary and State Assembly elections.

72.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
I. The Rajya Sabha has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in the matter of the removal of the Vice-President of India.
II. The Lok Sabha alone has the power to initiate a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
Only the Lok Sabha can initiate a no-confidence motion. Removal of the Vice-President requires a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha, but not with equal powers.

73.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Supreme Court of India is the guardian of the Constitution.
II. The Supreme Court of India can declare a law passed by Parliament as unconstitutional if it contravenes any provision of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution and has the power of judicial review to declare laws unconstitutional.

74.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The President of India is elected by a proportional representation system by means of a single transferable vote.
II. The Vice-President of India is elected by a direct election by the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The President is elected by an electoral college using proportional representation and single transferable vote. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college, not by direct election.

75.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to all persons residing in India.
II. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended during a National Emergency except Article 20 and Article 21.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Some Fundamental Rights are available to all persons, and during National Emergency, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended.

76.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Parliament of India can make laws on any matter in the State List for the whole or any part of India while a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation.
II. The President of India can issue directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised during the operation of a National Emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
During National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on State List matters and the President can direct States on executive matters.

77.

78.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The President of India can grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment.
II. The President’s pardoning power extends to cases involving the death penalty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The President has the power to grant pardons and other clemency, including in death penalty cases.

79.

80.

81.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
II. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The Deputy Chairman is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha from among themselves, not appointed by the President.

82.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
I. The Rajya Sabha can initiate a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
II. The Lok Sabha can remove the Council of Ministers by passing a motion of no-confidence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
Only the Lok Sabha can remove the Council of Ministers by passing a motion of no-confidence. The Rajya Sabha cannot initiate such a motion.

83.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The President of India can summon a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
II. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The President can summon a joint sitting to resolve deadlocks, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such sittings.

84.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution provides for the establishment of a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each State.
II. The Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Constitution provides for Public Service Commissions for the Union and States. The Chairman and members of a State PSC are appointed by the Governor of the respective State, not by the President.

85.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The President of India can promulgate ordinances only when either of the Houses of Parliament is not in session.
II. An ordinance promulgated by the President has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Both statements are correct as per Article 123 of the Constitution.

86.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
I. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of the Business Advisory Committee.
II. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairman of the Business Advisory Committee. The Committee on Public Accounts is chaired by a member appointed by the Speaker, not by the Deputy Speaker.

87.

88.

89.

90.

UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 GS Paper 1 Answer Key with Explanation

91.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed by the President of India.
II. The CAG can be removed from office in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The CAG is appointed by the President and can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.

92.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
I. The Attorney General of India is the chief legal adviser to the Government of India.
II. The Attorney General must be a member of either House of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Attorney General is the chief legal adviser but does not have to be a member of Parliament.

93.

Question:
Consider the following statements:
I. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President of India every five years or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.
II. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (a) I only
Explanation:
The Finance Commission is constituted every five years or earlier by the President. Its recommendations are advisory, not binding.

94.

Question:
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
I. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
II. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting in the absence of the Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The Speaker presides over a joint sitting; in his/her absence, the Deputy Speaker presides.